Do I Know This Already Quiz

The purpose of this assessment quiz is to help you determine how to spend your limited study time.

If you can answer most or all of these questions, you might want to skim the "Foundation Topics" section and return to it later, as necessary. Review the "Foundation Summary" section and answer the questions at the end of the chapter to ensure that you have a strong grasp of the material covered.

If you already intend to read the entire chapter, you do not necessarily need to answer these questions now. If you find these assessment questions difficult, read through the entire "Foundation Topics" section and review it until you feel comfortable with your ability to answer all of these questions and the "Q & A" questions at the end of the chapter.

Answers to these questions can be found in Appendix A, "Answers to Quiz Questions."

1. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for converting frames into bits and bits into frames?

a. Physical b. Network c. Transport d. LLC sublayer e. Data link

2. Routing occurs at what layer of the OSI model?

a. Physical b. Network c. Transport d. LLC sublayer e. Data link a. Physical b. Network c. Transport d. Data link

4. Which of the following is not part of the OSI model?

a. Network layer b. Physical layer c. Operational layer d. Application layer

5. IP operates at what layer of the OSI model?

a. Layer 1

b. Layer 2

c. Layer 3

d. Layer 4

e. Layer 5

f. Layer 6

g. Layer 7

6. On which layer of the OSI model is data commonly referred to as segments?

a. Layer 4

b. Layer 3

c. Layer 2

d. Layer 1

7. On which layer of the OSI model is data commonly referred to as packets?

a. Layer 1

b. Layer 2

c. Layer 4

d. Layer 3

8. Which layer of the OSI model transmits raw bits?

a. Layer 1

b. Layer 2

c. Layer 3

d. Layer 4

9. Which of the following protocols is not routable?

c. NetBEUI

d. NetBIOS

10. Which of the following is not a required step to enable Fast EtherChannel (FEC)?

a. Ensure that all ports share the same speed at 10 Mbps.

b. Ensure that all ports share the same parameter such as speed.

c. Ensure that all ports operate at 100 Mbps.

d. Ensure eight ports are selected to be bundled into a logical link or trunk.

11. How is Fast EtherChannel best defined?

a. A bundle of 10-Mbps ports on a switch b. Another name for half-duplex 100 Mbps c. Not available on Cisco Catalyst switches d. The ability to bundle 100-Mbps ports into a logical link e. Only supported with Gigabit ports

12. On what OSI layer does bridging occur?

a. Layer 1

b. Layer 2

c. Layer 3

d. Both Layer 1 and 2

13. In the spanning tree protocol, what is a BPDU?

a. A break protocol data unit b. A routable frame c. A bridge protocol data unit d. A frame sent out by end stations

14. An incoming frame on a Layer 2 switch is received on port 10/1 on a Catalyst 5000. If the destination address is known through port 10/2, what happens?

a. The frame is discarded.

b. The frame is sent via port 10/2.

c. The frame is broadcast to all ports on the switch.

d. The frame is sent back via 10/1.

e. None of these.

15. Which of the following are the four possible states of spanning tree?

a. Listening, learning, blocking, broadcasting b. Listening, learning, blocking, connecting c. Discovering, learning, blocking, connecting d. Listening, learning, blocking, forwarding

16. How many bits make up an IP address?

a. 64 bits b. 48 bits c. 32 bits d. 24 bits e. 8 bits

17. Identify the broadcast address for the subnet 131.108.1.0/24.

e. More data required

18. Convert the address 131.1.1.1/24 to binary:

a. 10000011.1.1.1

b. 10000011.00000010.1.1 c. 10000011.1.1.01010101 d. 10000011.1.1.11111111

19. How many subnets are possible in VLSM if the Class C address 131.108.255.0 is used with the subnet mask 255.255.255.252 in the fourth octet field? (Allow for subnet zero.)

a.

None

b.

100

c.

255

d.

254

e.

253

f.

252

g.

66

h.

20. How many hosts are available when a /26 subnet mask is used?

21. How many hosts are available in a Class C or /24 network?

e. More data required

22. You require an IP network to support, at most, 62 hosts. What subnet mask will accomplish this requirement?

a. 255.255.255.255

b. 255.255.255.252

c. 255.255.255.224

d. 255.255.255.192

e. 255.255.255.240

23. Which of the following are multicast addresses? (Choose all that apply.)

24. Which of the following routing protocols does not support VLSM?

a. RIPv1

b. RIPv2

c. OSPF

d. EIGRP

25. What is the source TCP port number when a Telnet session is created by a PC to a Cisco router?

b. A value higher than 1024

26. What best describes the ARP process?

a. DNS resolution b. Mapping an IP address to a MAC address c. Mapping a next-hop address to the outbound interface on a Cisco router d. Both a and b

27. If two Cisco routers are configured for HSRP and one router has a default priority of 100 and the other 99, which router assumes the role of active router?

a. The default priority cannot be 100.

b. The router with a higher priority.

c. The router with the lowest priority.

d. Neither router because Cisco routers do not support HSRP; only clients do.

28. A Cisco router has the following route table:

Rl#show ip route

131.108.0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 17 subnets, 2 masks C 131.108.255.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/0

C 131.108.250.0/24 is directly connected, Serial0/1

O 131.108.254.0/24 [110/391] via 131.108.255.6, 03:33:03, Serial0/1

[110/391] via 131.108.255.2, 03:33:03, Serial0/0 R 131.108.254.0/24 [120/1] via 131.108.255.6, 03:33:03, Serial1/0

What is the preferred path to 131.108.254.0/24? (Choose the best two answers.)

a. Via Serial0/0

b. Via Serial0/1

29. IP RIP runs over what TCP port number?

e. None of these

30. IP RIP runs over what UDP port number?

31. An OSPF virtual link should_.

a. never be used b. allow nonpartitioned areas access to the backbone c. allow partitioned areas access to the backbone d. not be used in OSPF, but rather in ISDN

33. What is the destination port number used in a Telnet session?

34. In what field, or fields, does the IP checksum calculate the checksum value?

a. Data only b. Header and data c. Header only d. Not used in an IP packet

35. The TCP header checksum ensures integrity of what data in the TCP segment?

a. The data only.

b. The header only.

c. The data and header.

d. There are no TCP header checksums; IP covers the calculation.

36. ISDN BRI channels are made up of what?

a. 1 x 64-kbps channel and one D channel at 64 kbps b. 2 x 64-kbps channels and one D channel at 64 kbps c. 2 x 64-kbps channels and one D channel at 16 kbps d. 32 x 64-kbps channels and one D channel at 16 kbps

37. What services can ISDN carry?

a. Data only b. Data and voice only c. Voice and video d. Data, voice, and video

38. Place the following steps in the correct order for PPP callback, as specified in RFC 1570.

1. A PC user (client) connects to the Cisco access server.

2. The Cisco IOS Software validates callback rules for this user/line and disconnects the caller for callback.

3. PPP authentication is performed.

4. Callback process is negotiated in the PPP Link Control Protocol (LCP) phase.

5. The Cisco access server dials the client.

39. What hardware port is typically designed to connect a Cisco router for modem access?

a. The console port b. The vty lines c. The auxiliary port d. The power switch e. The Ethernet interface

40. The AS5300 series router can support which of the following incoming connections?

a. Voice b. Dialup users via PSTN

c. ISDN

d. All of these

41. Which of the following routing protocols are protected by an authentication mechanism?

a. OSPF

b. RIPv2

c. RIPv1

d. EIGRP

e. IGRP

f. EBGP

g. IBGP

42. What UDP port range is used between Cisco IP Phones when a call is in progress?

c. 2748-3748

d. 16384-32766

e. 16384-32767

f. None; TCP is used

43. What two methods are commonly used to secure Voice over IP? (Choose two answers.)

a. Access lists b. IDSs c. Enable passwords d. Deny HTTP access to the CCM

44. Which of the following can be used by attackers to gain access to WLANs? (Select three answers.)

a. Call the TAC

b. Audit the MAC address c. Detect the SSID

d. Exploit flaws in the operating system e. Use a sniffer tool with a wireless adapter

45. Which of the following is not a method used to secure a wireless network? (Select the best three answers.)

a. Deploy WEP with a static key only b. Deploy mutual client-to-server authentication, such as RADIUS?

c. Use dynamic key management d. Disable MAC authentication e. Nothing, wireless is inherently secure

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